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Based on the pedigree below, which of the following statements correctly interpreted the pedigree with respect to X-linked dominant, X-linked recessive, Y-linked, mitochondrial, autosomal recessive, and autosomal dominant inheritance? (Select all that apply.) Based on the pedigree below, which of the following statements correctly interpreted the pedigree with respect to X-linked dominant, X-linked recessive, Y-linked, mitochondrial, autosomal recessive, and autosomal dominant inheritance? (Select all that apply.)    A)  The phenotype presented is X-linked dominant because II-3 has the same phenotype as I-1. B)  The phenotype presented is X-linked recessive because III-3 and III-4 do not have the same phenotype as II-5. C)  The phenotype cannot be Y-linked because II-2 doesn't have the same phenotype as I-1. D)  The phenotype could be autosomal recessive as III-3 and III-4 don't have the same phenotype as II-5. E)  The phenotype could be autosomal dominant if II-5 and II-6 are heterozygotes, and III-3 and III-4 are homozygous recessive.


A) The phenotype presented is X-linked dominant because II-3 has the same phenotype as I-1.
B) The phenotype presented is X-linked recessive because III-3 and III-4 do not have the same phenotype as II-5.
C) The phenotype cannot be Y-linked because II-2 doesn't have the same phenotype as I-1.
D) The phenotype could be autosomal recessive as III-3 and III-4 don't have the same phenotype as II-5.
E) The phenotype could be autosomal dominant if II-5 and II-6 are heterozygotes, and III-3 and III-4 are homozygous recessive.

F) None of the above
G) C) and D)

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Assuming there are no heteroplasmic individuals but that people from different families have different DNA, how many different mitochondrial DNAs are there in the pedigree below? Assuming there are no heteroplasmic individuals but that people from different families have different DNA, how many different mitochondrial DNAs are there in the pedigree below?    A)  2 B)  4 C)  5 D)  6 E)  7


A) 2
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) 7

F) A) and B)
G) B) and C)

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Which of the following statements is NOT true?


A) Both the mitochondria and the chloroplast generate ATP.
B) A single eukaryotic cell may contain thousands of copies of the mitochondrial genome.
C) According to the endosymbiotic theory, chloroplasts are thought to have evolved from cyanobacteria.
D) The mutation rate of mitochondrial DNA is higher than the mutation rate of nuclear DNA.
E) Oxidative phosphorylation capacity is constant throughout a person's lifetime.

F) C) and E)
G) A) and E)

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How many different types of histones are found in the nucleosome that packages mitochondrial DNA?


A) zero
B) one
C) two
D) three
E) four

F) B) and C)
G) A) and D)

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There are some genomes that have been reported to be positively coiled instead of negatively supercoiled, which is the status of most genomes that we have studied. The genomes that are positively supercoiled seem to belong to viruses and cells that exist at very high temperatures. Why might positive supercoiling be an advantage at high temperatures? (Select all that apply.)


A) Negative supercoiling makes it more difficult for strands to separate while positive supercoiling would allow the strands to separate more readily.
B) At high temperatures, the condition is more conducive for the strands to denature.
C) The high temperature would increase the formation of the hydrogen bonds between bases.
D) Positive supercoiling would allow the DNA to maintain its double-stranded structure at higher temperature.
E) Positive supercoiling would allow the DNA to readily separate for transcription and replication.

F) None of the above
G) A) and B)

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How many base pairs per turn of the helix would MOST likely correspond to a negatively supercoiled DNA molecule?


A) 0
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15
E) 100

F) A) and E)
G) A) and B)

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What is "satellite" DNA? Explain why satellite DNA anneals rapidly after it is denatured.

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Describe the structure and packing of a bacterial chromosome.

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How does the organization of the eukaryotic chromosome differ from the organization of a bacterial chromosome? Include in your answer (a) classes of DNA sequences, (b) special features of the chromosome, (c) organization of the genes within the chromosome, and (d) proteins that interact with chromosomal DNA.

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The petite mutations in S. cerevisiae, was discovered by Boris Ephrussi and his colleagues in the late 1940s, result in much smaller colony size, reflecting the defect in the cellular growth rate (Figure 11.15) . Most petite mutations are known to occur on mitochondrial DNA. Which of the following statements offer a logical explanation of the petite phenotype? Select all that apply. (Photo credit: [From Xin Jie Chen and G. Desmond Clark-Walker, Genetics 144: 1445-1454, Fig 1, 1996. © Genetics Society of America. Courtesy of Xin Jie Chen, Department of Biochemistry and Molecular Biology, SUNY Upstate Medical University.]) The petite mutations in S. cerevisiae, was discovered by Boris Ephrussi and his colleagues in the late 1940s, result in much smaller colony size, reflecting the defect in the cellular growth rate (Figure 11.15) . Most petite mutations are known to occur on mitochondrial DNA. Which of the following statements offer a logical explanation of the petite phenotype? Select all that apply. (Photo credit: [From Xin Jie Chen and G. Desmond Clark-Walker, Genetics 144: 1445-1454, Fig 1, 1996. © Genetics Society of America. Courtesy of Xin Jie Chen, Department of Biochemistry and Molecular Biology, SUNY Upstate Medical University.])    A)  The defect in the cellular growth comes from an inability to generate enough ATP. B)  The growth defect is known to come from having excessive copies of mitochondria, resulting in toxicity from excess ATP. C)  The mutations on the mtDNA can result in deficiency of the enzymes involved in aerobic respiration. D)  They have no means to make any ATP because of mtDNA defects that affect the normal mitochondrial functions. E)  The petite mutants only have to rely on anaerobic processes such as fermentation and glycolysis.


A) The defect in the cellular growth comes from an inability to generate enough ATP.
B) The growth defect is known to come from having excessive copies of mitochondria, resulting in toxicity from excess ATP.
C) The mutations on the mtDNA can result in deficiency of the enzymes involved in aerobic respiration.
D) They have no means to make any ATP because of mtDNA defects that affect the normal mitochondrial functions.
E) The petite mutants only have to rely on anaerobic processes such as fermentation and glycolysis.

F) B) and D)
G) C) and E)

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The presence of more than one variation of DNA in the organelles of a single cell is called:


A) homoplasmy.
B) heteroplasmy.
C) hemiplasmy.
D) pseudoplasmy.
E) paraplasmy.

F) A) and B)
G) A) and C)

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Two haploid strains of petite yeast mutants are obtained independently. Each is crossed to a wild-type strain, and the resulting diploid is sporulated (goes through meiosis to produce haploid spores). Use the following results to explain the difference between the two strains and why the crosses give different results. Two haploid strains of petite yeast mutants are obtained independently. Each is crossed to a wild-type strain, and the resulting diploid is sporulated (goes through meiosis to produce haploid spores). Use the following results to explain the difference between the two strains and why the crosses give different results.

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Telomeres exist to help with the _____ of the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes.


A) transcription
B) replication
C) metabolism
D) destabilization
E) translation

F) A) and D)
G) A) and C)

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If a bacterial chromosome were inserted into a eukaryotic cell, would it be stable and segregate like eukaryotic chromosomes do during mitosis and meiosis? (Select all that apply.)


A) It would not be stable due to the lack of a eukaryotic-specific origin of replication; hence, it could not replicate properly in a eukaryotic cell.
B) It would be generally stable because the chemical nature of DNA is the same regardless of the cell type.
C) Due to the lack of centromeres on prokaryotic chromosomes, the chromosomes will not segregate normally during cell division.
D) The prokaryotic chromosome can be induced to be stabilized by cleavage of circular form to mimic linear eukaryotic chromosome.
E) The bacterial chromosome would be lost and eventually degraded.

F) B) and D)
G) A) and B)

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A new Drosophila phenotype is investigated with a series of crosses. P (parental) organisms are true-breeding. The following is the first cross: A new Drosophila phenotype is investigated with a series of crosses. P (parental) organisms are true-breeding. The following is the first cross:   Predict the F<sub>2</sub> results if the allele that causes the mutant phenotype is X-linked recessive. Then predict the results if the allele causing the mutant phenotype is mitochondrial. Predict the F2 results if the allele that causes the mutant phenotype is X-linked recessive. Then predict the results if the allele causing the mutant phenotype is mitochondrial.

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Which of the following amino acids has a positive charge that helps to hold the DNA in contact with the histones?


A) alanine
B) arginine
C) leucine
D) valine
E) serine

F) B) and E)
G) C) and D)

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How many complete rotations would MOST likely correspond to a negatively supercoiled DNA molecule that is 100 bp in length?


A) 0
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15
E) 100

F) B) and D)
G) A) and E)

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DNA can be isolated from cells, and the different types of DNA from the cell can be separated by density gradient centrifugation. The following figures show the density gradient centrifugation profiles for DNA isolated from four different cell types: plant, animal, wild-type yeast with a plasmid, and petite yeast. DNA can be isolated from cells, and the different types of DNA from the cell can be separated by density gradient centrifugation. The following figures show the density gradient centrifugation profiles for DNA isolated from four different cell types: plant, animal, wild-type yeast with a plasmid, and petite yeast.   - Which figure has the DNA profile that would most closely match DNA from a human cell? A)  1 B)  2 C)  3 D)  4 - Which figure has the DNA profile that would most closely match DNA from a human cell?


A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

E) A) and C)
F) All of the above

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Which of the following descriptions is NOT true of heterochromatin?


A) It remains in a highly condensed state throughout the cell cycle.
B) It makes up most chromosomal material and is where most transcription occurs.
C) It exists at the centromeres and telomeres.
D) It occurs along one entire X chromosome in female mammals when this X becomes inactivated.
E) It is characterized by the absence of crossing over and replication late in the S phase.

F) C) and D)
G) B) and D)

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At the end of the nineteenth century, American bison were bred with domestic cattle in an attempt to rescue their declining populations. The resulting hybrids were bred with true bison. After many generations, animals that look like bison may still contain some ancestral cattle DNA. Ward et al. (Animal Conservation 2: 51-57, 1999) tested current bison herds for a mitochondrial DNA marker specific to cattle. Of the North American bison they tested, 5.2% had the cattle-specific mitochondrial DNA marker. Does this under- or overestimate the number of bison-cattle hybrids? Explain your answer.

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This result likely underestimates the nu...

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